Sunday, 30 August 2026

Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 3



 Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 3

Total Marks: 150 | Total Questions: 100 | Time: 2 Hours | Negative Marking: −0.5

BOTANY (Questions 1–28)

Plant Physiology (Transport in Plants)


1. The ascent of sap mainly occurs through:


A. Phloem

B. Xylem

C. Cortex

D. Epidermis


2. According to the Cohesion-Tension theory, ascent of sap is mainly due to:


A. Root pressure

B. Capillary action

C. Transpiration pull

D. Osmosis


3. Root pressure is most effective:


A. During the day in dry weather

B. During the night or early morning

C. At noon

D. During winter only


4. Which cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata?


A. Companion cells

B. Guard cells

C. Epidermal cells

D. Mesophyll cells


5. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:


A. Diffusion

B. Active transport

C. Osmosis

D. Imbibition

Mineral Nutrition


6. Which element is essential for chlorophyll synthesis?


A. Magnesium

B. Calcium

C. Sodium

D. Chlorine


7. Deficiency of nitrogen causes:


A. Chlorosis of older leaves

B. Red coloration of flowers

C. Excessive branching

D. Delayed flowering only


8. Which of the following is a micronutrient?


A. Calcium

B. Sulphur

C. Boron

D. Phosphorus

Photosynthesis


9. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:


A. Carbon dioxide

B. Water

C. Glucose

D. Chlorophyll


10. Photolysis of water occurs in:


A. Photosystem I

B. Photosystem II

C. Calvin cycle

D. Stroma


11. The first stable product in C₄ plants is:


A. PGA

B. OAA

C. RuBP

D. Pyruvate


12. Which enzyme fixes CO₂ initially in C₄ plants?


A. Rubisco

B. PEP Carboxylase

C. Catalase

D. ATP Synthase


13. The Calvin cycle is also known as:


A. Hatch-Slack cycle

B. C₂ cycle

C. Dark reaction

D. Glycolysis

Respiration


14. Complete oxidation of one glucose molecule produces approximately:


A. 2 ATP

B. 18 ATP

C. 36–38 ATP

D. 100 ATP


15. Glycolysis is also called:


A. Krebs cycle

B. EMP pathway

C. Calvin cycle

D. Pentose cycle


16. Which molecule enters the Krebs cycle?


A. Pyruvic acid

B. Acetyl-CoA

C. Glucose

D. NADH

Plant Growth and Development


17. Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening?


A. Auxin

B. Cytokinin

C. Ethylene

D. ABA


18. Gibberellins promote:


A. Seed dormancy

B. Stem elongation

C. Leaf fall

D. Stomatal closure


19. Apical dominance is mainly due to:


A. Cytokinin

B. Auxin

C. Ethylene

D. ABA


20. Which hormone promotes cell division?


A. Cytokinin

B. Ethylene

C. ABA

D. Auxin

Plant Reproduction


21. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of:


A. Gymnosperms

B. Angiosperms

C. Bryophytes

D. Pteridophytes


22. Triple fusion results in the formation of:


A. Zygote

B. Endosperm

C. Embryo

D. Ovule


23. The embryo sac of angiosperms is usually:


A. 4-nucleate

B. 8-nucleate and 7-celled

C. 16-nucleate

D. 2-nucleate

Ecology


24. Green plants occupy which trophic level?


A. Primary consumer

B. Producer

C. Secondary consumer

D. Decomposer


25. Which pyramid is always upright?


A. Numbers

B. Biomass

C. Energy

D. Population

Biotechnology


26. Bt cotton is resistant to:


A. Aphids

B. Bollworms

C. Whiteflies

D. Nematodes


27. The Ti plasmid is obtained from:


A. Escherichia coli

B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

C. Rhizobium

D. Bacillus thuringiensis


28. ELISA is mainly used for:


A. DNA sequencing

B. Detection of HIV infection

C. Plant tissue culture

D. PCR amplification


Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

1

B

8

C

15

B

22

B

2

C

9

B

16

B

23

B

3

B

10

B

17

C

24

B

4

B

11

B

18

B

25

C

5

C

12

B

19

B

26

B

6

A

13

C

20

A

27

B

7

A

14

C

21

B

28

B

 

ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)

Human Physiology – Digestion & Circulation


29. The enzyme present in saliva that digests starch is:


A. Pepsin

B. Trypsin

C. Salivary amylase

D. Lipase


30. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is secreted by:


A. Chief cells

B. Parietal cells

C. Goblet cells

D. Pancreatic cells


31. The largest part of the human digestive system is:


A. Stomach

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Oesophagus


32. The main function of bile salts is:


A. Digestion of proteins

B. Emulsification of fats

C. Digestion of carbohydrates

D. Absorption of amino acids


33. The normal blood pressure of a healthy adult is approximately:


A. 120/80 mm Hg

B. 80/120 mm Hg

C. 160/100 mm Hg

D. 90/60 mm Hg


34. The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is:


A. Tricuspid valve

B. Mitral valve

C. Pulmonary valve

D. Aortic valve


35. RBCs are formed mainly in:


A. Liver

B. Red bone marrow

C. Kidney

D. Spleen

Excretion


36. The structural and functional unit of kidney is:


A. Neuron

B. Nephron

C. Alveolus

D. Glomerulus


37. Ultrafiltration of blood occurs in:


A. Loop of Henle

B. Collecting duct

C. Glomerulus

D. Distal tubule


38. The hormone regulating water balance in the body is:


A. Insulin

B. ADH

C. Thyroxine

D. Growth hormone

Nervous System


39. The junction between two neurons is called:


A. Axon

B. Synapse

C. Dendrite

D. Cell body


40. The cerebellum controls:


A. Thinking ability

B. Body balance and coordination

C. Heartbeat

D. Hormone secretion


41. The neurotransmitter released at neuromuscular junction is:


A. Insulin

B. Acetylcholine

C. Thyroxine

D. Adrenaline

Endocrine System


42. Thyroxine hormone is secreted by:


A. Pituitary gland

B. Thyroid gland

C. Adrenal gland

D. Pancreas


43. Iodine deficiency causes:


A. Diabetes

B. Goitre

C. Anaemia

D. Rickets


44. Adrenaline hormone is secreted by:


A. Adrenal medulla

B. Thyroid gland

C. Pancreas

D. Pituitary gland

Reproduction


45. Testosterone is secreted by:


A. Sertoli cells

B. Leydig cells

C. Ova

D. Corpus luteum


46. The female reproductive hormone estrogen is mainly produced by:


A. Ovary

B. Uterus

C. Pituitary

D. Placenta only


47. Spermatogenesis occurs in:


A. Epididymis

B. Seminiferous tubules

C. Vas deferens

D. Prostate gland

Genetics & Molecular Biology


48. DNA was first isolated by:


A. Watson

B. Friedrich Miescher

C. Mendel

D. Morgan


49. The process of formation of RNA from DNA is called:


A. Translation

B. Replication

C. Transcription

D. Mutation


50. Protein synthesis occurs on:


A. Lysosomes

B. Ribosomes

C. Golgi bodies

D. Centrioles

Evolution


51. Fossils provide evidence for:


A. Photosynthesis

B. Evolution

C. Respiration

D. Digestion


52. The theory of mutation was proposed by:


A. Darwin

B. Lamarck

C. Hugo de Vries

D. Mendel

Ecology & Environment


53. The interaction where both species benefit is:


A. Predation

B. Competition

C. Mutualism

D. Parasitism


54. The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is:


A. Soil

B. Sunlight

C. Water

D. Minerals


55. The process by which plants lose water vapour is:


A. Respiration

B. Transpiration

C. Guttation

D. Diffusion


56. A species restricted to a particular geographical area is called:


A. Exotic species

B. Endemic species

C. Migratory species

D. Invasive species


Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

29

C

36

B

43

B

50

B

30

B

37

C

44

A

51

B

31

B

38

B

45

B

52

C

32

B

39

B

46

A

53

C

33

A

40

B

47

B

54

B

34

B

41

B

48

B

55

B

35

B

42

B

49

C

56

B




CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)

Physical Chemistry


57. The number of particles present in one mole of a substance is:


A. 6.022 × 10²³

B. 3.011 × 10²³

C. 9.8 × 10²³

D. 1.66 × 10²³


58. The SI unit of temperature is:


A. Celsius

B. Fahrenheit

C. Kelvin

D. Joule


59. According to Boyle's law, at constant temperature:


A. Pressure is directly proportional to volume

B. Pressure is inversely proportional to volume

C. Volume is independent of pressure

D. Temperature increases with pressure


60. The pH value of a basic solution is:


A. Less than 7

B. Equal to 7

C. More than 7

D. Zero


61. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by:


A. Increasing activation energy

B. Decreasing activation energy

C. Increasing product energy

D. Changing equilibrium constant


62. The law of conservation of mass was proposed by:


A. Dalton

B. Lavoisier

C. Avogadro

D. Proust


63. The process of conversion of solid directly into gas is called:


A. Evaporation

B. Condensation

C. Sublimation

D. Fusion

Inorganic Chemistry


64. The atomic number of oxygen is:


A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 16


65. Which element is a halogen?


A. Sodium

B. Chlorine

C. Calcium

D. Magnesium


66. The most abundant element in the Earth's crust is:


A. Silicon

B. Oxygen

C. Aluminium

D. Iron


67. The chemical formula of common salt is:


A. NaOH

B. NaCl

C. KCl

D. CaCO₃


68. The gas used in the Haber process is:


A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Hydrogen

D. Chlorine


69. Which metal is extracted by electrolytic reduction?


A. Aluminium

B. Iron

C. Copper

D. Zinc


70. Stainless steel contains:


A. Iron and carbon only

B. Iron, chromium and nickel

C. Copper and zinc

D. Aluminium and magnesium

Organic Chemistry


71. The general formula of alkanes is:


A. CₙH₂ₙ

B. CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

C. CₙH₂ₙ₋₂

D. CₙHₙ


72. The functional group of carboxylic acids is:


A. –OH

B. –CHO

C. –COOH

D. –NH₂


73. Ethanol belongs to the group:


A. Alcohols

B. Aldehydes

C. Ketones

D. Acids


74. The simplest aromatic hydrocarbon is:


A. Methane

B. Benzene

C. Ethene

D. Ethyne


75. Soap is chemically:


A. Sodium or potassium salt of fatty acids

B. Alcohol

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrate


76. Polymer of ethene is:


A. PVC

B. Polythene

C. Nylon

D. Bakelite


77. The main component of natural gas is:


A. Ethane

B. Methane

C. Propane

D. Butane

Environmental Chemistry


78. The major greenhouse gas among the following is:


A. Oxygen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen


79. Acid rain has a pH:


A. More than 7

B. Equal to 7

C. Less than 5.6

D. Exactly 10


80. CFCs are responsible for:


A. Global warming only

B. Ozone layer depletion

C. Acid formation in soil

D. Water purification

Mixed Chemistry


81. The chemical formula of sulphuric acid is:


A. HCl

B. HNO₃

C. H₂SO₄

D. H₂CO₃


82. Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?


A. Photosynthesis

B. Respiration

C. Electrolysis of water

D. Melting of ice


83. The metal used for making electrical wires is:


A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Sodium

D. Mercury


84. The process of rusting requires:


A. Nitrogen only

B. Oxygen and moisture

C. Carbon dioxide only

D. Hydrogen only


Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

57

A

64

C

71

B

78

B

58

C

65

B

72

C

79

C

59

B

66

B

73

A

80

B

60

C

67

B

74

B

81

C

61

B

68

B

75

A

82

B

62

B

69

A

76

B

83

B

63

C

70

B

77

B

84

B





PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)

Educational Psychology


85. The concept of "Learning by Insight" was proposed by:


A. Pavlov

B. Kohler

C. Skinner

D. Thorndike


86. According to Piaget, children between 7–11 years belong to:


A. Sensorimotor stage

B. Pre-operational stage

C. Concrete operational stage

D. Formal operational stage


87. The theory of operant conditioning was given by:


A. Skinner

B. Pavlov

C. Bandura

D. Bruner


88. The "Law of Effect" was proposed by:


A. Thorndike

B. Piaget

C. Vygotsky

D. Maslow

Teaching Methodology


89. The main objective of teaching science is to develop:


A. Memorization ability

B. Scientific attitude and thinking

C. Only writing skills

D. Examination fear


90. The best method for developing problem-solving ability among students is:


A. Lecture method

B. Problem-solving method

C. Dictation method

D. Drill method


91. A teacher encourages students to ask questions and explore ideas. This approach is:


A. Teacher-centred learning

B. Constructivist approach

C. Rote learning

D. Programmed instruction


92. The use of models, charts and specimens in science teaching helps in:


A. Making learning abstract

B. Providing concrete experiences

C. Reducing understanding

D. Avoiding experiments

Assessment & Evaluation


93. Assessment conducted during teaching-learning process is called:


A. Summative assessment

B. Formative assessment

C. Placement assessment

D. Entrance assessment


94. The main purpose of diagnostic assessment is:


A. Giving final grades

B. Identifying learning difficulties

C. Selecting toppers

D. Conducting examinations


95. In Bloom's taxonomy, the highest level of cognitive domain is:


A. Remembering

B. Understanding

C. Applying

D. Creating


96. A test that measures what it is intended to measure has:


A. Reliability

B. Validity

C. Objectivity

D. Usability

Inclusive Education & ICT


97. Children with special needs should be educated through:


A. Exclusion

B. Inclusive education

C. Isolation

D. Separate learning only


98. ICT-based teaching helps students by:


A. Providing interactive learning experiences

B. Replacing teachers completely

C. Reducing communication

D. Stopping classroom activities

NEP 2020 & Teacher Role


99. NEP 2020 focuses mainly on:


A. Rote memorization

B. Competency-based and experiential learning

C. Only textbook learning

D. Teacher-centred education


100. An effective science teacher should:


A. Encourage curiosity and experimentation

B. Discourage student questions

C. Use only lectures

D. Avoid practical activities




Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

85

B

89

B

93

B

97

B

86

C

90

B

94

B

98

A

87

A

91

B

95

D

99

B

88

A

92

B

96

B

100

A













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Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 3

  Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 3 Total Marks: 150 | Total Questions: 100 | Time: 2 Hours | Negative Marking: −0.5 BOTANY (Questions 1–28...