Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 2
Total Marks: 150
Total Questions: 100
Time: 2 Hours
Negative Marking: −0.5
BOTANY (Questions 1–28)
Genetics (NCERT Class XII)
1. Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments because:
A. They have a long life cycle.
B. They possess many easily distinguishable contrasting characters.
C. They reproduce only vegetatively.
D. They lack true breeding lines.
2. A monohybrid cross produces the phenotypic ratio:
A. 1:2:1
B. 3:1
C. 9:3:3:1
D. 2:1
3. Which law states that alleles separate during gamete formation?
A. Law of Dominance
B. Law of Segregation
C. Law of Independent Assortment
D. Law of Inheritance
4. Test cross is performed by crossing an individual with:
A. Homozygous dominant
B. Homozygous recessive
C. Heterozygous
D. F₁ hybrid
5. The chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by:
A. Watson and Crick
B. Sutton and Boveri
C. Mendel
D. Morgan
6. Crossing over occurs during:
A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene
7. Which chromosome determines sex in human males?
A. XX
B. YY
C. XY
D. XO
8. The unit of recombination is:
A. Gene
B. Centimorgan
C. Chromosome
D. Codon
9. Linkage was first discovered by:
A. Mendel
B. Morgan
C. Bateson and Punnett
D. Darwin
10. The "Father of Genetics" is:
A. Morgan
B. Darwin
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Bateson
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
11. DNA replication is:
A. Conservative
B. Semi-conservative
C. Dispersive
D. Random
12. The genetic material in most organisms is:
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Lipid
13. Adenine pairs with thymine through:
A. One hydrogen bond
B. Two hydrogen bonds
C. Three hydrogen bonds
D. Four hydrogen bonds
14. Guanine pairs with cytosine through:
A. One hydrogen bond
B. Two hydrogen bonds
C. Three hydrogen bonds
D. Four hydrogen bonds
15. DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in:
A. 3′ → 5′ direction
B. 5′ → 3′ direction
C. Both directions
D. Random direction
16. The triplet code UGA is:
A. Start codon
B. Stop codon
C. Glycine codon
D. Methionine codon
17. The start codon is:
A. UAA
B. AUG
C. UGA
D. UAG
18. Which RNA carries amino acids to ribosomes?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. snRNA
Evolution
19. Natural selection was proposed by:
A. Lamarck
B. Darwin
C. De Vries
D. Wallace
20. The "survival of the fittest" concept supports:
A. Mutation theory
B. Natural selection
C. Germplasm theory
D. Catastrophism
21. Industrial melanism is associated with:
A. Peppered moth
B. Butterfly
C. Honey bee
D. Fruit fly
22. Homologous organs indicate:
A. Convergent evolution
B. Divergent evolution
C. Artificial selection
D. Mutation
Biotechnology
23. PCR was invented by:
A. Watson
B. Kary Mullis
C. Crick
D. Morgan
24. Restriction enzymes are called:
A. Molecular pumps
B. Molecular scissors
C. Molecular motors
D. Molecular carriers
25. The vector commonly used in recombinant DNA technology is:
A. Ribosome
B. Plasmid
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosome
Ecology
26. The pyramid of energy is always:
A. Upright
B. Inverted
C. Spindle-shaped
D. Irregular
27. Which is an example of an endemic species of India?
A. Lion-tailed macaque
B. Polar bear
C. Kangaroo
D. Penguin
28. Biodiversity conservation outside natural habitat is called:
A. In-situ conservation
B. Ex-situ conservation
C. Afforestation
D. Agroforestry
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Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
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1 |
B |
8 |
B |
15 |
B |
22 |
B |
|
2 |
B |
9 |
C |
16 |
B |
23 |
B |
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3 |
B |
10 |
C |
17 |
B |
24 |
B |
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4 |
B |
11 |
B |
18 |
C |
25 |
B |
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5 |
B |
12 |
B |
19 |
B |
26 |
A |
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6 |
C |
13 |
B |
20 |
B |
27 |
A |
|
7 |
C |
14 |
C |
21 |
A |
28 |
B |
ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)
Human Physiology
29. The oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is:
A. Linear
B. Hyperbolic
C. Sigmoid
D. Parabolic
30. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Aorta
D. Superior vena cava
31. The normal pH of human blood is approximately:
A. 6.8
B. 7.4
C. 8.2
D. 5.5
32. Which part of the nephron is mainly responsible for selective reabsorption?
A. Glomerulus
B. Bowman's capsule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
33. The hormone that decreases blood glucose level is:
A. Glucagon
B. Adrenaline
C. Insulin
D. Cortisol
34. Which vitamin deficiency causes pernicious anaemia?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B₁₂
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
35. The pacemaker of the human heart is:
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibres
Digestion & Nutrition
36. The largest gland in the human body is:
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary
37. Which enzyme converts proteins into peptides in the stomach?
A. Trypsin
B. Pepsin
C. Amylase
D. Lipase
38. Bile juice is stored in the:
A. Liver
B. Gall bladder
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum
Nervous System
39. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature and hunger?
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebrum
40. The functional unit of the nervous system is:
A. Nephron
B. Neuron
C. Osteon
D. Sarcomere
41. The myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system is formed by:
A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Microglia
D. Oligodendrocytes
Reproduction
42. Fertilization in humans generally occurs in the:
A. Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Ampullary region of fallopian tube
D. Cervix
43. Human sperm are produced in the:
A. Epididymis
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Vas deferens
D. Prostate gland
Genetics
44. DNA replication takes place during which phase of the cell cycle?
A. G₁ phase
B. S phase
C. G₂ phase
D. M phase
45. The chromosome number in a human somatic cell is:
A. 23
B. 44
C. 46
D. 48
46. Which scientist discovered the double-helix structure of DNA?
A. Mendel
B. Watson and Crick
C. Darwin
D. Morgan
47. The unit of heredity is:
A. Chromosome
B. DNA
C. Gene
D. Genome
Evolution
48. Analogous organs are evidence of:
A. Divergent evolution
B. Convergent evolution
C. Mutation
D. Isolation
49. Which theory was proposed by Lamarck?
A. Natural Selection
B. Mutation Theory
C. Inheritance of Acquired Characters
D. Germplasm Theory
Biotechnology
50. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at:
A. Random sites
B. Specific recognition sites
C. Ribosomes
D. Telomeres
51. PCR is mainly used to:
A. Translate proteins
B. Amplify DNA
C. Digest proteins
D. Produce ATP
Ecology
52. Which ecosystem has the highest biodiversity?
A. Desert
B. Tropical rainforest
C. Tundra
D. Grassland
53. Ozone depletion is mainly caused by:
A. CO₂
B. CFCs
C. Methane
D. Nitrogen
54. Which of the following is a primary consumer?
A. Grass
B. Deer
C. Tiger
D. Eagle
55. The ecological pyramid that is always upright is:
A. Pyramid of numbers
B. Pyramid of biomass
C. Pyramid of energy
D. Pyramid of population
56. Which is an example of an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
A. Bacteria
B. Grass
C. Soil
D. Earthworm
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Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
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29 |
C |
36 |
B |
43 |
B |
50 |
B |
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30 |
B |
37 |
B |
44 |
B |
51 |
B |
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31 |
B |
38 |
B |
45 |
C |
52 |
B |
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32 |
C |
39 |
C |
46 |
B |
53 |
B |
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33 |
C |
40 |
B |
47 |
C |
54 |
B |
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34 |
B |
41 |
B |
48 |
B |
55 |
C |
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35 |
B |
42 |
C |
49 |
C |
56 |
C |
CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)
Physical Chemistry
57. One mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 L at:
A. 0°C and 1 atm
B. 25°C and 1 atm
C. 100°C and 1 atm
D. 0°C and 2 atm
58. The SI unit of pressure is:
A. Bar
B. Atmosphere
C. Pascal
D. Torr
59. The oxidation number of manganese in KMnO₄ is:
A. +4
B. +5
C. +6
D. +7
60. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?
A. CH₃COOH
B. NH₄OH
C. NaCl
D. H₂CO₃
61. The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
62. Which law explains the relationship between pressure and volume at constant temperature?
A. Charles' Law
B. Boyle's Law
C. Gay-Lussac's Law
D. Avogadro's Law
63. The rate of a reaction depends upon:
A. Temperature
B. Concentration of reactants
C. Catalyst
D. All of the above
Inorganic Chemistry
64. Which element belongs to Group 17 of the periodic table?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Chlorine
D. Sulfur
65. The element with the highest electronegativity is:
A. Oxygen
B. Chlorine
C. Fluorine
D. Nitrogen
66. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Aluminium
67. Which gas is evolved when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine
68. The chief ore of iron is:
A. Bauxite
B. Galena
C. Haematite
D. Zinc blende
69. Which process is used for the extraction of aluminium?
A. Blast furnace
B. Hall-Héroult process
C. Bessemer process
D. Mond process
70. Which noble gas is used in electric bulbs?
A. Helium
B. Neon
C. Argon
D. Krypton
Organic Chemistry
71. The IUPAC name of CH₃OH is:
A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Propanol
D. Butanol
72. Which functional group is present in aldehydes?
A. –OH
B. –COOH
C. –CHO
D. –NH₂
73. Benzene contains:
A. Only single bonds
B. Only double bonds
C. Delocalized π-electrons
D. Triple bonds
74. Which hydrocarbon belongs to the alkene series?
A. CH₄
B. C₂H₆
C. C₂H₄
D. C₂H₂
75. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Lactose
D. Sucrose
76. Ethanoic acid belongs to:
A. Alcohols
B. Aldehydes
C. Carboxylic acids
D. Ketones
77. Which reaction is characteristic of alkenes?
A. Substitution
B. Addition
C. Elimination
D. Polymerization only
Environmental Chemistry
78. Which gas is mainly responsible for acid rain?
A. Oxygen
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen
79. Ozone is mainly found in the:
A. Troposphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Thermosphere
80. The greenhouse effect is mainly due to:
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Helium
Mixed Chemistry
81. The SI unit of energy is:
A. Watt
B. Joule
C. Newton
D. Pascal
82. Which acid is present in vinegar?
A. Citric acid
B. Oxalic acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Lactic acid
83. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
A. Sodium
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Aluminium
84. Which gas is commonly used in the Haber process?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Chlorine
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Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
|
57 |
A |
64 |
C |
71 |
B |
78 |
B |
|
58 |
C |
65 |
C |
72 |
C |
79 |
C |
|
59 |
D |
66 |
C |
73 |
C |
80 |
C |
|
60 |
C |
67 |
B |
74 |
C |
81 |
B |
|
61 |
B |
68 |
C |
75 |
D |
82 |
C |
|
62 |
B |
69 |
B |
76 |
C |
83 |
B |
|
63 |
D |
70 |
C |
77 |
B |
84 |
B |
PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)
Educational Psychology
85. According to Piaget, a child develops the ability to think abstractly during the:
A. Sensorimotor stage
B. Pre-operational stage
C. Concrete operational stage
D. Formal operational stage
86. Who proposed the theory of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?
A. Skinner
B. Vygotsky
C. Piaget
D. Bruner
87. The process of learning through reinforcement is associated with:
A. Constructivism
B. Behaviourism
C. Humanism
D. Gestalt Psychology
88. Which psychologist proposed the Trial and Error Theory of Learning?
A. Pavlov
B. Thorndike
C. Skinner
D. Bruner
Teaching Methodology
89. Which teaching method is most suitable for developing scientific attitude among students?
A. Lecture Method
B. Demonstration Method
C. Inquiry Method
D. Dictation Method
90. Which of the following is a learner-centred method of teaching?
A. Lecture Method
B. Project Method
C. Dictation Method
D. Drill Method
91. A Biology teacher uses laboratory experiments to verify scientific principles. This method is called:
A. Lecture Method
B. Demonstration Method
C. Experimental Method
D. Storytelling Method
92. Which teaching aid is most suitable for explaining the human heart?
A. Audio recording
B. Chalk only
C. Three-dimensional model
D. Dictionary
Assessment & Evaluation
93. Formative assessment is mainly used to:
A. Rank students
B. Improve learning during teaching
C. Award certificates
D. Conduct board examinations
94. Which assessment is conducted before starting instruction to identify prior knowledge?
A. Summative Assessment
B. Placement Assessment
C. Formative Assessment
D. Terminal Assessment
95. Bloom's taxonomy includes which of the following domains?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. All of the above
96. Continuous assessment mainly helps teachers to:
A. Improve classroom teaching
B. Punish students
C. Reduce attendance
D. Conduct only final examinations
Inclusive Education & ICT
97. Inclusive education emphasizes:
A. Teaching only gifted students
B. Separate classrooms for CWSN
C. Equal learning opportunities for all learners
D. Excluding slow learners
98. ICT in education primarily aims to:
A. Replace teachers
B. Enhance teaching-learning through technology
C. Reduce student participation
D. Eliminate classroom interaction
NEP 2020 & Professional Ethics
99. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 promotes:
A. Rote memorization
B. Competency-based learning
C. Only annual examinations
D. Teacher-centred learning
100. An effective teacher should:
A. Encourage questioning and critical thinking
B. Discourage classroom interaction
C. Depend only on textbooks
D. Avoid using teaching aids
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Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
Q. No. |
Answer |
|
85 |
D |
89 |
C |
93 |
B |
97 |
C |
|
86 |
B |
90 |
B |
94 |
B |
98 |
B |
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87 |
B |
91 |
C |
95 |
D |
99 |
B |
|
88 |
B |
92 |
C |
96 |
A |
100 |
A |
