Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) Mock Test – 1

Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) Mock Test – 1

Pattern

Total Questions: 100

Total Marks: 150

Time: 2 Hours

Negative Marking: −0.5

Correct Answer: +1.5

Question Distribution

Q.1–28: Botany

Q.29–56: Zoology

Q.57–84: Chemistry

Q.85–100: Pedagogy & Evaluation

BOTANY (Questions 1–28)

Cell: Structure and Function

1. According to the Fluid Mosaic Model, the plasma membrane consists of:

A. Cellulose and proteins

B. Phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

C. Protein bilayer

D. Lipid monolayer

2. Which of the following is the largest cell organelle in a mature plant cell?

A. Nucleus

B. Mitochondrion

C. Vacuole

D. Chloroplast

3. Ribosomes responsible for protein synthesis in chloroplast are:

A. 80S

B. 70S

C. 60S

D. 50S

4. The selectively permeable membrane of the vacuole is called:

A. Plasmalemma

B. Tonoplast

C. Cell wall

D. Nuclear membrane

5. Which organelle is called the "Suicidal Bag" of the cell?

A. Golgi body

B. Lysosome

C. Ribosome

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

6. Cell wall is mainly composed of:

A. Chitin

B. Cellulose

C. Glycogen

D. Lignin

7. The power house of the cell is:

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Chloroplast

C. Mitochondrion

D. Peroxisome

8. Chromosomes become visible during:

A. Interphase

B. Prophase

C. Cytokinesis

D. G₁ phase

9. Which phase of mitosis is characterized by alignment of chromosomes at the equatorial plate?

A. Prophase

B. Metaphase

C. Anaphase

D. Telophase

10. Crossing over occurs during:

A. Leptotene

B. Zygotene

C. Pachytene

D. Diplotene

Biomolecules

11. The building blocks of proteins are:

A. Fatty acids

B. Amino acids

C. Nucleotides

D. Monosaccharides

12. Which carbohydrate is known as milk sugar?

A. Maltose

B. Lactose

C. Sucrose

D. Fructose

13. DNA contains which sugar?

A. Ribose

B. Deoxyribose

C. Glucose

D. Fructose

14. Which enzyme digests starch?

A. Pepsin

B. Trypsin

C. Amylase

D. Lipase

Plant Anatomy

15. Casparian strips occur in:

A. Epidermis

B. Cortex

C. Endodermis

D. Pericycle

16. Companion cells are associated with:

A. Xylem vessels

B. Tracheids

C. Sieve tubes

D. Fibres

17. Secondary growth occurs due to:

A. Apical meristem

B. Lateral meristem

C. Intercalary meristem

D. Epidermis

18. Which tissue provides mechanical strength to young stems?

A. Parenchyma

B. Collenchyma

C. Phloem

D. Epidermis

Photosynthesis

19. The light reaction occurs in:

A. Stroma

B. Thylakoid membrane

C. Cytoplasm

D. Matrix

20. Calvin cycle occurs in:

A. Grana

B. Stroma

C. Cytoplasm

D. Thylakoid lumen

21. The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₃ plants is:

A. PEP

B. RuBP

C. PGA

D. OAA

22. Kranz anatomy is found in:

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Maize

D. Pea

23. Which pigment acts as the reaction centre of Photosystem II?

A. P700

B. Chlorophyll b

C. P680

D. Xanthophyll

Respiration

24. Glycolysis occurs in:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Mitochondria

C. Chloroplast

D. Nucleus

25. Krebs cycle occurs in:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Mitochondrial matrix

C. Ribosome

D. Golgi body

Plant Growth & Mineral Nutrition

26. Which plant hormone promotes stem elongation?

A. ABA

B. Auxin

C. Ethylene

D. Cytokinin

27. Nitrogen is absorbed mainly by plants in the form of:

A. NH₄⁺ and NO₃⁻

B. N₂ gas

C. Urea

D. Amino acids

28. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

A. Nitrogen

B. Potassium

C. Zinc

D. Calcium

Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer
1	B	8	B	15	C	22	C
2	C	9	B	16	C	23	C
3	B	10	C	17	B	24	A
4	B	11	B	18	B	25	B
5	B	12	B	19	B	26	B
6	B	13	B	20	B	27	A
7	C	14	C	21	B	28	C

ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)

Human Physiology

29. The functional unit of the kidney is:

A. Neuron

B. Nephron

C. Alveolus

D. Osteon

30. Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for ultrafiltration?

A. Loop of Henle

B. Proximal convoluted tubule

C. Glomerulus

D. Distal convoluted tubule

31. The hormone ADH mainly increases:

A. Glucose absorption

B. Water reabsorption in kidneys

C. Sodium excretion

D. Protein synthesis

32. The oxygen-carrying pigment of blood is:

A. Myoglobin

B. Hemocyanin

C. Hemoglobin

D. Melanin

33. Which blood group is called the universal recipient?

A. O

B. A

C. B

D. AB

34. The normal heartbeat is initiated by:

A. AV node

B. SA node

C. Bundle of His

D. Purkinje fibres

35. Which chamber of the human heart has the thickest muscular wall?

A. Right atrium

B. Left atrium

C. Right ventricle

D. Left ventricle

36. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin C

Digestion

37. The enzyme pepsin acts in:

A. Mouth

B. Stomach

C. Small intestine

D. Large intestine

38. Bile juice is secreted by the:

A. Gall bladder

B. Pancreas

C. Liver

D. Duodenum

39. The main site of absorption of digested food is:

A. Stomach

B. Ileum

C. Rectum

D. Colon

Respiration

40. Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in:

A. Bronchi

B. Bronchioles

C. Alveoli

D. Trachea

41. The normal respiratory pigment in humans is:

A. Chlorophyll

B. Hemoglobin

C. Hemocyanin

D. Hemosiderin

Nervous System

42. The largest part of the human brain is:

A. Cerebellum

B. Medulla oblongata

C. Cerebrum

D. Hypothalamus

43. The reflex action is mainly controlled by the:

A. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

C. Spinal cord

D. Thalamus

Endocrine System

44. Insulin is secreted by:

A. Alpha cells

B. Beta cells

C. Delta cells

D. Acinar cells

45. Which gland is known as the "master gland"?

A. Thyroid

B. Adrenal

C. Pituitary

D. Pineal

Reproduction

46. Fertilization in humans usually occurs in the:

A. Ovary

B. Uterus

C. Ampulla of fallopian tube

D. Cervix

47. The placenta is formed between:

A. Ovary and uterus

B. Foetus and uterine wall

C. Cervix and vagina

D. Embryo and ovary

Genetics

48. Mendel's Law of Segregation is also called:

A. Law of Dominance

B. Law of Purity of Gametes

C. Law of Independent Assortment

D. Law of Variation

49. DNA replication is:

A. Conservative

B. Semi-conservative

C. Dispersive

D. Random

50. The genetic material in most organisms is:

A. RNA

B. DNA

C. Protein

D. Lipid

Evolution

51. Darwin proposed the theory of:

A. Mutation

B. Natural Selection

C. Inheritance of acquired characters

D. Germplasm

Biotechnology

52. PCR stands for:

A. Polymerase Chain Reaction

B. Protein Chain Reaction

C. Primary Cell Reaction

D. Polymer Cell Replication

53. Restriction enzymes are also known as:

A. Molecular scissors

B. Molecular pumps

C. Molecular motors

D. Molecular carriers

Ecology

54. The pyramid of energy is always:

A. Inverted

B. Upright

C. Spindle-shaped

D. Circular

55. Ozone depletion is mainly caused by:

A. CO₂

B. SO₂

C. CFCs

D. CH₄

56. Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?

A. Thar Desert

B. Western Ghats

C. Gangetic Plain

D. Deccan Plateau

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
29	B	36	C	43	C	50	B
30	C	37	B	44	B	51	B
31	B	38	C	45	C	52	A
32	C	39	B	46	C	53	A
33	D	40	C	47	B	54	B
34	B	41	B	48	B	55	C
35	D	42	C	49	B	56	B

CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)

Physical Chemistry

57. The SI unit of amount of substance is:

A. Gram

B. Mole

C. Kilogram

D. Equivalent

58. One mole of any substance contains:

A. 3.01 × 10²³ particles

B. 6.022 × 10²³ particles

C. 9.11 × 10²³ particles

D. 1.66 × 10²³ particles

59. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:

A. +4

B. +6

C. +2

D. –2

60. Which law states that the total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases equals the sum of their partial pressures?

A. Boyle's Law

B. Charles's Law

C. Dalton's Law

D. Graham's Law

61. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

A. 0

B. 7

C. 10

D. 14

62. Which electrolyte shows maximum electrical conductivity?

A. CH₃COOH

B. HCl

C. NH₄OH

D. H₂CO₃

63. The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with:

A. Decrease in temperature

B. Increase in temperature

C. Decrease in concentration

D. Increase in pressure only

Inorganic Chemistry

64. The atomic number of carbon is:

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

65. Which element has the highest electronegativity?

A. Oxygen

B. Chlorine

C. Fluorine

D. Nitrogen

66. Which of the following is an alkali metal?

A. Calcium

B. Sodium

C. Magnesium

D. Aluminium

67. The oxidation state of chromium in K₂Cr₂O₇ is:

A. +2

B. +3

C. +6

D. +7

68. Which gas is known as laughing gas?

A. NO

B. NO₂

C. N₂O

D. NH₃

69. Aluminium is extracted by:

A. Blast furnace

B. Electrolytic reduction

C. Zone refining

D. Froth flotation

70. Which ore is the chief source of aluminium?

A. Haematite

B. Magnetite

C. Bauxite

D. Galena

Organic Chemistry

71. The IUPAC name of CH₃COOH is:

A. Methanoic acid

B. Ethanoic acid

C. Propanoic acid

D. Butanoic acid

72. Benzene belongs to which class of compounds?

A. Aliphatic

B. Aromatic

C. Alicyclic

D. Saturated

73. Which hydrocarbon is the simplest alkane?

A. Ethane

B. Methane

C. Propane

D. Butane

74. Which functional group is present in alcohols?

A. –CHO

B. –COOH

C. –OH

D. –NH₂

75. Which compound is a reducing sugar?

A. Sucrose

B. Glucose

C. Cellulose

D. Starch

76. Which of the following undergoes addition reactions?

A. Ethane

B. Methane

C. Ethene

D. Benzene

77. Which gas is evolved when sodium reacts with water?

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Nitrogen

D. Chlorine

Environmental Chemistry

78. Acid rain is mainly caused by:

A. CO₂ and CH₄

B. SO₂ and NOₓ

C. O₂ and N₂

D. NH₃ and H₂

79. The gas responsible for ozone depletion is:

A. CO₂

B. CH₄

C. CFCs

D. H₂

80. Greenhouse effect is mainly caused by:

A. Nitrogen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Helium

D. Hydrogen

Mixed Chemistry

81. Which of the following is a strong acid?

A. Acetic acid

B. Carbonic acid

C. Hydrochloric acid

D. Formic acid

82. Which metal reacts vigorously with cold water?

A. Copper

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Silver

83. Avogadro's law states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain:

A. Equal masses

B. Equal numbers of molecules

C. Equal densities

D. Equal atomic masses

84. The SI unit of molar conductivity is:

A. S m² mol⁻¹

B. Ω m

C. S cm⁻¹

D. Ω cm

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
57	B	64	B	71	B	78	B
58	B	65	C	72	B	79	C
59	B	66	B	73	B	80	B
60	C	67	C	74	C	81	C
61	B	68	C	75	B	82	C
62	B	69	B	76	C	83	B
63	B	70	C	77	B	84	A

PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)

Educational Psychology

85. According to Jean Piaget, abstract logical thinking develops during the:

A. Sensorimotor Stage

B. Pre-operational Stage

C. Concrete Operational Stage

D. Formal Operational Stage

86. The concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) was proposed by:

A. Jean Piaget

B. Lev Vygotsky

C. Jerome Bruner

D. Edward Thorndike

87. Which learning theory emphasizes reinforcement?

A. Constructivism

B. Behaviorism

C. Humanism

D. Gestalt Theory

88. "Learning by Doing" is mainly associated with:

A. John Dewey

B. B. F. Skinner

C. Ivan Pavlov

D. Sigmund Freud

Teaching Methodology

89. Which method is most suitable for developing scientific attitude among students?

A. Lecture Method

B. Demonstration Method

C. Inquiry Method

D. Dictation Method

90. Which teaching aid is most effective for explaining the structure of DNA?

A. Blackboard

B. Chart

C. Three-dimensional Model

D. Audio Recording

91. While teaching Biology, a teacher asks students to perform an experiment and draw conclusions. This approach is:

A. Teacher-centred

B. Inquiry-based learning

C. Lecture method

D. Drill method

92. Which of the following is the most learner-centred teaching strategy?

A. Lecture

B. Project Method

C. Dictation

D. Recitation

Assessment & Evaluation

93. Formative assessment is mainly used:

A. To award grades

B. To improve learning during instruction

C. To declare final results

D. To rank students

94. Diagnostic assessment is conducted to:

A. Certify students

B. Identify learning difficulties

C. Promote students

D. Compare schools

95. Bloom's revised taxonomy places "Create" at:

A. Lowest level

B. Middle level

C. Highest cognitive level

D. Second level

96. Which assessment is generally conducted at the end of a course?

A. Diagnostic Assessment

B. Placement Assessment

C. Formative Assessment

D. Summative Assessment

Inclusive Education & ICT

97. Inclusive education aims to:

A. Separate children based on ability

B. Educate all children together with appropriate support

C. Teach only gifted students

D. Exclude children with disabilities

98. ICT in teaching mainly helps to:

A. Replace teachers completely

B. Enhance teaching-learning through technology

C. Reduce classroom interaction

D. Eliminate practical work

NEP 2020 & Professional Ethics

99. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes:

A. Rote learning

B. Competency-based learning

C. Only annual examinations

D. Memorization of textbooks

100. A professionally competent teacher should:

A. Discourage student questions

B. Use only one teaching method

C. Continuously update subject knowledge and teaching skills

D. Depend only on textbooks

Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans
85	D	89	C	93	B	97	B
86	B	90	C	94	B	98	B
87	B	91	B	95	C	99	B
88	A	92	B	96	D	100	C